Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp Thành phố môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 8 - Năm học 2022-2023 - Phòng GD và ĐT Sầm Sơn (Có đáp án)

Nội dung text: Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp Thành phố môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 8 - Năm học 2022-2023 - Phòng GD và ĐT Sầm Sơn (Có đáp án)

1. PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP THÀNH PHỐ THÀNH PHỐ SẦM SƠN NĂM HỌC: 2022-2023 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 8 Thời gian: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Đề thi gồm có: 06 trang PART A: LISTENING (15 points) Part 1. You will hear an interview, with a teenager called Amy Manero, who is talking about her interest in music, particularly jazz piano. Choose the correct answer from A, B or C for each question. You will hear the recording twice. 1. When did Amy have lessons with a piano teacher? A. at the age of four. B. before she started secondary school. C. after getting advice from her school music teacher. 2. How did Amy feel at her first big public event? A. excited because she was wearing a wonderful costume. B. nervous because it was her first time on stage. C. surprised because the audience was very big. 3. What does Amy say about playing jazz with the school band? A. She put lots of effort into learning about it. B. She was better at it than the rest of the players. C. She enjoyed it as soon as she started. 4. Amy gives piano lessons so that she can ___. A. help people who couldn’t normally afford them . B. encourage lots of young people to play the piano. C. improve her own playing technique. 5. Why does Amy write a blog on the internet? A. to get some experience for becoming a journalist. B. to tell people about her daily life as a musician. C. to recommend events for people to go to. Part 2. You will hear a boy, called Adam telling his class, about a hot air balloon flight he went on. Fill in each blank with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS. You will hear the recording twice. ADAM’S HOT AIR BALLOON FLIGHT 6. The flight in the balloon lasted for ___. 7. Adam could see as far as the ___ from the balloon. 8. Adam didn't recognize a ___from the air. 9. Adam was surprised that it was ___ in the balloon basket. 10. Adam didn't like having to ___ in the basket. Part 3. Listen to Adam and Emma talking about holidays and decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F). You will hear the recording twice. 11. Adam has already booked his holiday. T/F 12. Emma doesn’t like sitting on beaches all day. T/F 13. Emma might not go on holiday this year. T/F 14. Adam usually goes to Scotland in the summer. T/F 15. Emma thinks that hotels in Scotland are expensive. T/F 1
2. PART B: PHONETICS (5 points) Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (3 points) 16. A. island B. establish C. aspect D. escape 17. A. food B. fool C. foot D. tooth 18. A. exchanged B. coughed C. controlled D. covered Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. (2 points) 19. A. realize B. improve C. possible D. comfortable 20. A. important B. especially C. prefer D. influence PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points) Question I. Circle the best option from A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (15pts) 21. It’s not easy to study a foreign language by ___. A- oneself B- himself C- itself D- herself 22. Shall I put the books on the floor? – No, I want to keep the ___. A- tidy room B- room tidily C- room is tidy D- room tidy 23. When she looked in her purse, she found she had been ___. A- broken B- thieved C- stolen D- robbed 24. A lot needs ___ to the house before anyone can move in. A- be done B- to do C- doing D- done 25. When shall we meet: at 7.30 or 8.00? – I don’t mind ___. A- Either time B- Neither of them C- Both time D- Neither time 26. The programme on TV attracted millions of ___. A- audience B- spectators C- viewers D- witnesses 27. Florida, ___the Sunshine State, attracts many tourists every year. A- is B- known as C- is known as D- that is known as 28. Never before ___ such a wonderful sight . A- I have seen B- I had seen C- I saw D- have I seen 29. He was ___ speaker. A- so good a B- what a good C- so a good D- how good a 30. The teacher ___against talking to strangers. A- recommended B- suggested C- advised D- said 31. My grandfather was a lovely person who ___ pleasure from helping others. A. derived B. gathered C. deduced D. collected 32. Hoa: "Would you mind my smoking?” Mai: "___" A. OK B. Sorry, I can’t C.No. Please go ahead. D. I’d rather you didn’t 33. ___ his advice, I would have never got the job. A. Except B. Apart from C. But for D. As for 34. I met ___one-eyed man at the gate. A. the B. an C. a D. (no article) 35. ___ at his lessons, he couldn’t catch up with his classmates. A. Hardly as he worked B. Hard as he worked C. Hard as he does D. Hard as he was 2
3. Question II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets. Write the answers on your answer sheet (5 pts). 36. He prefers driving to (drive)___. 37. It’s essential that he ( arrive) ___ before seven. 38. I’d rather you (not wear) ___jeans to the office. 39. My little sister (read) ___ Sleeping Beauty several times. 40. I (improve) ___my English speaking skill, I would easily get that job. Question III. Supply the correct form of the words in capital. Write the answers on your answer sheet (5 pts). 41. The cities are full of ___ looking for work. MIGRATE 42. His boss told him off because he had behaved ___ . RESPONSIBLE 43. She got very angry but later she apologised for her ___ . PATIENT 44. Have you got any ___ ? SUGGEST 45. It is usually forbidden to destroy ___building. HISTORY Question IV. There is one mistake in each sentence, find out and correct it (5 pts) 46. I'm trying to persuade my sister to drive, but I can’t get her do it. 47. Can you tell me where were you born? — Stockholm. 48. Each of the students in the class has to do their own assignment this semester. 49. John was upset last night because he had to do too many homework. 50. Fifteen hundred dollars a year were the per capita income in the United States in 1950. PART D: READING (30 points) I.Choose a suitable word that best fits each blank in the following passage. Most students, in their own countries have had little opportunity to practise using English. When foreign learners first have the (51) ___ to speak to an English- speaking person they may have a shock: they often (52) ___great difficulty in understanding. I'll just mention three of the possible reasons for this. First, it seems to students that English people speak very quickly. (53) ___, they speak with a variety of accents. Third, different styles of speech are used. For all of these reasons (54) ___ will have difficulty, mainly because they lack everyday practice in listening to English people speaking English. (55) ___ can a student do then to overcome these difficulties? Obviously, attend English classes and if a language laboratory is available, use it as (56) ___ as possible. He should listen to programs in English on the radio and TV. Perhaps, most important of (57) ___ , he should take every opportunity to meet and speak with native English-speaking people. In addition, the student probably has difficulty in speaking English fluently. The advice here will seem (58) ___ to follow but it's necessary. Firstly, he must simplify what he wants to say so that he can express himself reasonably and clearly. Secondly, he must try to think in English, (59) ___ translate from his mother tongue. This will only begin to take place when his use of English become automatic; using a language laboratory (60) ___listening to as much English as possible will help. 3
4. II.Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the following passage. From the seeds themselves to the machinery, fertilizers and pesticides - The Green Revolution regimen depend heavily on technology. One (61) ___, however, depends much (62) ___ on technology - organic farming. Many organic farmers use machinery, but (63) ___ chemical fertilizers or pesticides. (64) ___ chemical soil enrichers, they use animal manure and plant parts not used as food -,natural,organic fertilizers that are clearly a renewable (65) ___. Organic farmers also use alternatives (66) ___ pesticides; for example they may rely on natural predators of certain insect pests. (67) ___ the need arises, they can buy the eggs and larvae of these natural predators and introduce them into their crop fields. They use (68) ___ techniques to control pests as well, like planting certain crops together because one crop repels the other's pests. Organic farmers do not need a lot of land; (69) ___ organic farming is perfectly (70) ___ to small farms and is relatively inexpensive. Finally, many organic farmers' average yields compare favorably with other farmers' yields. 61. A. alteration B. alternate C. alternative D. alternation 62. A. more B. less C. better D. worse 63. A. also B. for C. not D. all 64. A. In spite of B. On account of C. In favour of D. Instead of 65. A. resource B. source C. matter D. substance 66. A. of B. to C. forD. from 67. A. Then B. If C. Because D. Though 68. A. others B. another C. the others D. other 69. A. instead B. in one way C. on one hand D. in fact 70. A. suitable B. open C. likely D. suited III.Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below. Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high-quality protein, eggs also contain a high level of blood cholesterol, one of the major causes of heart diseases. One egg yolk, in fact, contains a little more than two-thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge has caused egg sales to plummet in recent years, which in turn has brought about the development of several alternatives to eating regular eggs. One alternative is to eat substitute eggs. These egg substitutes are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs when they are cooked. They have the advantage of having low cholesterol rates, and they can be scrambled or used in baking. One disadvantage, however, is that they are not good for frying, poaching, or boiling. A second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called 'designer' eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-fat diets consisting of ingredients such as canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diets, however, these hens produce eggs that contain the same amount of cholesterol as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating their eggs will not raise the blood cholesterol in humans. Egg producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies to back up their claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol levels have brought mixed results. It may be that it is not the type of egg that is the main determinant of cholesterol but the person who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than other 4
5. people. In fact, there is evidence that certain dietary fats stimulate the body's production of blood cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes sense to limit one's intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it seems that doing this without regulating dietary fat will probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol level. 71. What is the main purpose of the passage? A. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level. B. To inform people about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol. C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten D. To convince people to eat 'designer' eggs and egg substitutes. 72. According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of heart diseases? A. minerals B. cholesterol C. canola oil D. vitamins 73. Which of the following could best replace the word 'somewhat'? A. in fact B. a little C. indefinitely D. a lot 74. What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs? A. increasing price B. decreased production C. dietary changes in hens D. concerns about cholesterol 75. According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the suggested daily limit for human consumption of cholesterol? A. 3/4 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/3 76. The word 'portrayed' could best be replaced by which of the following? A. studied B. destroyed C. tested D. described 77. What is the meaning of 'back up'? A. reverse B. advance C. block D. support 78. What is meant by the phrase 'mixed results'? A. The results are blended. B. The results are a composite of things. C. The results are inconclusive. D. The results are mingled together. 79. According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of following types of eggs EXCEPT? A. boiled B. poached C. scrambled D. fried 80. According to the author, which of the following may reduce blood cholesterol? A. reducing egg intake but not fat intake B. increasing egg intake and fat intake C. decreasing egg intake and fat intake D. increasing egg intake but not fat intake PART PART E: WRITING (20 points) Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it (5pts) 81. “I will go to Da Nang tomorrow” he said. → He said ___. 82. Learning English is not difficult. → I do ___. 83. I last saw Peter when we attended the school meeting. → I have not ___. 84. Though Mr. Matt works very hard, he is seldom successful in his life. → However ___. 85. She says I caused the accident. → She blames ___. 5
6. Question II. Finish each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the sentences printed before it, using the word given. DON’T CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. (5 points) 86. The boy was so tired that he can’t keep on walking. BOY → He was too ___. 87. It took us five hours to get to Hai Phong. SPENT → We ___ . 88. “You broke my camera!” Minh said to Hoa ACCUSED → Minh ___ . 89. House prices have risen sharply this year. RISE → There has ___ . 90. Could you watch my bag while I’m away, please? EYE → Could you ___ ? Question III: Paragraph writing (10 points). Many people think that living in the countryside is wonderful. Do you agree with them? Write a paragraph of about 150 words to express your opinion ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ THE END Họ tên thí sinh: ___SBD: ___ 6
7. PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP THÀNH PHỐ NĂM THÀNH PHỐ SẦM SƠN HỌC 2022-2023 HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 8 PART A: LISTENING (15pts) Part 1. You will hear an interview, with a teenager called Amy Manero, who is talking about her interest in music, particularly jazz piano. Choose the correct answer from A, B or C for each question. 1B 2C 3A 4B 5C Part 2. You will hear a boy, called Adam telling his class, about a hot air balloon flight he went on. Fill in each blank with no more than one word. ADAM’S HOT AIR BALLOON FLIGHT 6. an hour. 7. mountains. 8. local bridge . 9. warm . 10. stand . Part 3. Listen to Adam and Emma talking about holidays and decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F).(5 pts) 11. T 12. F 13. F 14. F 15. T PART B: PHONETICS (5 points) 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. B 20. D PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30points) Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence (15 pts) 21. A 22. D 23. D 24. C 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. D 29. A 30.C 31. A 32D 33C 34C 35B Question II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets. Write the answers on your answer sheet (5 pts). 36. Being driven 37. arrive 38. didn’t wear 39. has read 40. Were- to improve Question III. Supply the correct form of the words in capital. Write the answers on your answer sheet (5 pts). 41 migrants 42 irresponsibly 43 impatience 44 suggestions 45 historical Question IV. There is one mistake in each sentence, find out and correct it (5pts) 46.do => to do 47. were you => you were 48. their => his/her 49. many => much 50. were => was PART D: READING (30 points) 7
8. I.Choose a suitable word that best fits each blank in the following passage. 51. opportunity 52. have 53. second/ secondly 54. students 55. what 56. much 57. all 58. difficult 59. not 60. and II.Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the following passage. 61.C; 62.B; 63.C; 64.D; 65.B; 66.B; 67.B; 68.D; 69.D; 70.D III.Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below. 71.B; 72.B; 73.B; 74.D; 75.B; 76.D; 77.D; 78.C; 79.C; 80.C; PART E: WRITING (20 points) Question I. 81. He said he would go to Da Nang the next/following day. 82. I do not find it difficult to learn English 83. I have not seen Peter since we attended the school meeting. 84. However hard Mr. Matt works, he is seldom successful in his life. 85. She blames causing the accident on me/ me for causing the accident (having caused is ok) Question II. 86. He was too tired a boy that he couldn’t keep on walking. 87. We spent 5 hours getting to Hai Phong . 88. Minh accused Hoa of breaking her/his camera . 89. There has been a dramatical rise in the house prices this year . 90. Could you keep an eye on my bag while I am away? Question III: Paragraph writing Making scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme 1. Format: 2pts (Coherence, cohesion, style) The essay include 3 parts: a. Introduction : shoud be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are clearly expressed. b. Body: should consist of from two or three paragraphs. Each paragraph must have a topic sentence, reasonings and examples/explanations. c. Conclusion: summarize the main reasons, students’ comment. 2. Contents: 5pts A ptovision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the argument. Note: - Students can totally agree/ disagree or partially agree. - Students can give their opinon right in the introduction or discuss the issue and give his/her own opinion in the conclusion. 3. Language: 3pts (grammatical accuracy, a wide range of vocabulary and structures) B. HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM - Tổng điểm toàn bài là 100 điểm, mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm - Cách quy đổi điểm bài thi về thang điểm 20: Điểm bài thi = Tổng số câu đúng 5 ___ THE END ___ 8