Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 - Năm học 2017-2018 (Có đáp án)

Nội dung text: Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 - Năm học 2017-2018 (Có đáp án)

1. aif ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6 NĂM HỌC: 2017-2018 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 06 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06. - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Điểm Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1: Số phách (Do Chủ tịch hội - Bằng số: đồng chấm thi ghi) - Bằng chữ: Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts) Listen and fill in the gaps: (150.2 = 3.0 pts) Time Time is (1) that you should never waste. Once an (2) is gone, it is gone forever. You should make the most of every minute. Time is a funny thing. Some days (3) by so slowly. Those are the days that you do things that (4) fun. When you are having fun, time just flies by. Time is made up of (5) units. (6) turn into minutes, minutes turn into hours, hours turn into days, days turn into weeks,weeks turn into months, and months turn into years. We measure our (7) by time. We are very concerned with time. Even little children are very conscious (8) time. Little children often want to appear older, so if you (9) a three-year-old how old he is, he will often say three and a (10) Many of our sayings are based on time. "Give me a minute.", "Hold on a second.", "I'm (11) out of time.", "Time's up.", "I just want an hour of your time." All of (12) are common things that we say, and they're all based on time. We are a society that lives by the clock. We almost all (13) watches, and we glance at our watches a lot. Time is something that we can't see, (14) it is a big factor in our lives. How many times a day do you look at a watch or a clock? I bet you'd be surprised at just (15) many times you do. -> Your answers: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)
2. I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2=1.0 pt) 16. A. brother B. summer C. orange D. dozen 17. A. plane B. paddy C. math D. flat 18. A. stereo B. lemonade C. eraser D. desk 19. A. workers B. students C. teachers D. doctors 20. A. washes B. couches C. sometimes D. benches -> Your answers: 16 17 18 19 20 II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. A. motorbike B. badminton C. pagoda D. citadel 22. A. vacation B. collection C. tomato D. lemonade 23. A. canteen B. country C. classroom D. housework 24. A. student B. desert C. housework D. routine 25. A. accident B. telephone C. engineer D. motorbike -> Your answers: 21 22 23 24 25 PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26. Is there else you want, Mrs. Thuy? – No, thanks. That’s enough today. A. a B. an C. some D. anything 27. go fishing this weekend? - Good idea! A. What do we B. Are we going C. Would you like D. Why don’t we 28. Listen! Who to your form teacher over there? – That’s my father. A. is talking B. does talk C. is going to talk D. talks 29. Let’s go to the bakery and buy ten of bread! – Yes, let’s. A. loaves B. bars C. bottles D. cans 30. All of these students come to school in time. They’re never late school. A. to B. in C. for D. at 31. Mum! Please buy some cooking oil. There much cooking oil in the bottle. A. aren’t B. is not C. isn’t D. B & C are correct 32. Is Phanxipang moutain in the world? - No, just in Viet Nam. A. the higher B. the high C. highest D. the highest 33. Mr. Thang’s grandwoman is woman. She is ninety years old. A. a old B. an old C. not young D. not very young 34. Our roads are quite dangerous places. All of us A. must be careful B. can be careful C. mustn’t be careless D. Both A&C are correct
3. 35. My father doesn’t want much sugar in coffee. Just , please. A. few B. a few C. little D. a little -> Your answers: 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 36. That boy drives so fast. It's very for the other people. DANGER 37. I like this kind of tree because it has a lot of green LEAF 38. Trung’s mother, Mrs. Hanh, is a very kind POLICE 39. There are some in the garden. They are planting roses. WOMAN 40. Of all the structures in the world we know, the Great Wall of China is the LONG one. 41. My new friend is very careful. He drives his car CARE 42. There are ten in our school library. BOOK 43. Do you know the of this tree? – I don’t know. HIGH 44. My birthday is on the of August. THIRTY 45. What 's your ? - I weigh100 pounds. WEIGH -> Your answers: 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. Your sister (do) the housework every day? 47. Don’t make such a noise! Our grandparents (sleep) in their room nearby. 48. What time your father (go) to work in the morning? 49. The students (visit) President Ho Chi Minh’s Mausoleum this weekend. 50. All the students in our school mustn’t (eat) food in the classes. -> Your answers: 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (100.2 = 2.0 pts)
4. Mr. Hung is an engineer in (51) very big factory. He lives in a small apartment on the (52) floor of a high building in Ho Chi Minh City. The factory is not near (53) so he usually goes to work by bus, he rarely goes by motorbike. He (54) home at 6.45 and come to his office at about 7.15 in the morning. (55) is Saturday morning now, and Mr. Hung doesn't go to work, he is (56) home, in bed. On Saturdays, he (57) at about seven o'clock. Then he sits in the living room and (58) breakfast with his wife at home. On Saturday afternoon, he usually plays tennis (59) some of his friends or goes swimming in the swimming pool. On Saturday evenings, he (60) at home, he often goes out to play chess with our neighbors. He's a good man and he's very kind to all of us. 51. A. a B. an C. the D. any 52. A. two B. double C. twice D. second 53. A. house B. he’s house C. his house D. him house 54. A. leave B. is leave C. leaving D. leaves 55. A. It B. It’s C. Its D. They 56. A. in B. at C. on D. with 57. A. get up B. gets up C. getting up D. is geting up 58. A. has B. having C. have D. to have 59. A. in B. with C. to D. about 60 A. not stay B. isn’t stay C. doesn’t stay D. no staying -> Your answers: 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 0.2 =2.0 pts) New Year is one of the most important festivals in the United States. On New Year’s Eve, most (61) go to the parties. At twelve (62) at night, everyone says “Happy New Year” and they wish their friends (63) relatives good luck. New Year’s parties usually last a long (64) . Many people don’t go (65) until next morning. Another holiday, Halloween, is mainly for children. On this holiday, children dress as witches, ghosts (66) others. Most children go from house (67) house asking for candy or fruit. If people at the house don’t give (68) candy, the children will (69) a trick on them. But this hardly happens. Almost people (70) them candy or fruit. -> Your answers: 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
5. Tom and Jane want to know their friends’ favorite free time activities, so they are asking their friends about what they like to do in their free time. Many of their friends say that usually eat and drink as well as chat with their friends. They like to talk about many things around them: their teachers, their friends, their families as well as their favorite musicians, singers, soccer players and movie stars. There are some popular activities after lessons at their school such as: skipping rope, reading books and playing sports. At home, many of their friends say they like to watch TV, listen to music or play computer games. They rarely go to the movies. Some of the girls like to go shopping. Very few of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet. Many of their friends don’t take part in art, music club. 71. What/ many of/ Tom and Jane's friends/ usually do/ their free time? -> . . 72. What/ their friends/ like/ talk about? -> . . 73. many of their friends/ like to watch TV, listen to music/ or play computer games/ home? -> . . 74. very few/ or many/ their friends/ like to do English exercises/ the Internet? -> . . 75. What/ passage/ talk about? (Free time activities/ Tom and Jane's friends/.) -> . . . PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. How much are these notebooks, Hoa? -> ? (cost) 77. My bike is cheaper than Ha's bike. -> (expensive) 78. No one in our village is as handsome as Peter. -> (most) 79. How tall is your younger brother, Joko? -> ? (age) 80. Does your brother enjoy playing Chinese chess? -> ? (interested) II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (50.2=1.0 pt)
6. 81. your friends/ going/ have / picnic/ near/Red River? -> 82. We would/ some oranges/and two/ glass/ milk/ please. -> 83. How much/ rice/ many eggs/ these farmers/ produce/ every year? -> 84. Anh / often/ play/sports/ his free time, but/ sometimes/ go/ camping/ his classmates. -> 85. Phuong's brother/ play/ soccer/ moment./ He/ play/ it/ every afternoon/ after school. -> III. Write an essay (120 words) about your family: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village ) . . . HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6 NĂM HỌC: 2017 - 2018 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts) Listen and fill in the gaps: (150.2 = 3.0 pts) 1. something 2. hour 3. go 4. aren't 5. different 6. Seconds 7. lives 8. of 9. ask 10. half 11. running 12. these 13. wear 14. but 15. how PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2=1.0 pt) 16. C. orange 17. A. plane 18. C. eraser 19. B. students 20. C. sometimes II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. C. pagoda 22. D. lemonade 23. A. canteen 24. D. routine 25. A. engineer PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26. D. anything 27. D. Why 28. A. is talking 29. A. loaves 30. C. for don’t we 31. D. 32. D. the 33. B. an old 34. D. Both A & 35. D. a little B & C are correct highest C are correct II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)
7. 36. dangerous 37. leaves 38. policewoman 39. women 40. longest 41. carefully 42. bookshelves 43. height 44. thirtieth 45. weight III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. Does do 47. are sleeping 48. does go 49. are going to visit 50. eat PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (100.2 = 2.0 pts) -> Your answers: 51. A. a 52. D. second 53. C. his house 54. D. leaves 55. A. It 56. B. at 57. B. gets up 58. A. has 59. B. with 60. C. doesn’t stay II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (100.2 =2.0 pts) 61. people 62. o’clock 63. and 64. time 65. home 66. or 67. to 68. them 69. play 70. give III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 71. What do many of Tom and Jane's friends usually do in their free time? -> They usually eat, drink and chat with their friends. 72. What do their friends like to talk about? -> They like to talk about many things around them. 37. Do many of their friends like to watch TV, listen to music or play computer games at home? -> Yes, they do. 74. Do very few or many of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet? -> Very few of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet. 75. What does the passage talk about? -> The passage talks about free time activities of Tom and Jane's friends. PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. How much do these notebooks cost, Hoa? 77. Ha's bike is more expensive than my bike/ my one/ mine. 78. Peter is the most handsome in our village. 79. What is your younger brother's age, Joko? 80. Is your brother interested in playing Chinese chess? II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (50.2=1.0 pt) 81. Are your friends going to have a picnic near the Red River? 82. We would like some oranges and two glasses of milk, please. 83. How much rice and how many eggs do these farmers produce every year? 84. Anh often plays sports in his free time, but he sometimes goes camping with his classmates.
8. 85. Phuong's brother is playing soccer at the moment. He/ plays it every afternoon after school. III. Write an essay (120 words) about your family: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village ) - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “How the family is, the number of members ”. (0.5pt) - The body: Write about at least three reasons explaining about what they do in general and in details , the sentences must contain connectors and link words (2,0 pts) - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas. (0.5 pt) * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have: - Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more). - Correct vocabulary and structures. - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ).