Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 - Năm học 2022-2023 - Phòng GD và ĐT Gia Viễn (Có đáp án)

Nội dung text: Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 - Năm học 2022-2023 - Phòng GD và ĐT Gia Viễn (Có đáp án)

1. PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6 HUYỆN GIA VIỄN NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 Môn: TIẾNG ANH Ngày thi: 30/3/2023 Thời gian làm bài:150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm 04 phần trong 09 trang . Số phách Điểm bài thi Họ và tên, chữ ký của giám khảo (Do Hội đồng chấm thi ghi) Bằng số: Giám khảo 1: Bằng chữ: Giám khảo 2: (Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp trên đề thi này) Hướng dẫn thí sinh: - Tổng thời gian phần thi nghe hiểu là 20 phút 17 giây. - Phần thi nghe hiểu gồm 05 bài. Thí sinh được nghe mỗi bài 02 lần liên tiếp. - Thí sinh đọc kĩ yêu cầu của từng bài trước khi nghe. - Hướng dẫn chi tiết bằng Tiếng Anh đã có trong đĩa nghe. Bắt đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. PART A. LISTENING (5.0 points) I. You will five short conversations. Put a tick (√) under the right answer. (1.0 point) 1. What is John going to do tonight? A B C 2. What is Ben’s family? A B C 3. Which bag does the woman buy? A B C 4. How much did the woman pay for the apples? A B C 5. What time does the film start? A B C
2. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. II. Listen to Liz and Micheal talking about rooms in a hotel. They are going to paint the rooms. What color are they going to paint each room? Write a letter A-H to each room. (1.0 point) * COLOUR: A. dark blue B. light blue C. dark green D. light green E. grey F. red G. white H. light yellow * ROOMS: ROOMS COLOUR ROOMS COLOUR 0. dining room G 3. second floor bedrooms 1. television room 4. office 2. first floor bedrooms 5. kitchen III. Listen to Sarah talking to her friend, Jane, about a new job. Tick (√) A, B or C. (1.0 point) 1. Sarah usually starts works at ___. A. 6.00 B. 8.30 C. 9.00 2. In the new job, Jane can earn ___. A. £160 a week B. £180 a week C. £210 a week 3. Sarah has lunch ___. A. in a café. B. in a park C. at home 4. In the new job, Jane can have ___. A. 3 weeks’ holiday B. 4 weeks’ holiday C. 5 weeks’ holiday 5. The manager’s name is Mr. ___. A. Fawset B. Fawcett C. Fausett Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. IV. You will hear a student telephoning a school. Listen and complete the questions. (1.0 point) Notebook Name of school: International Language School Next course begins: Day: (1) ___. Date: (2) 3rd___. Classes begin at: (3) ___. Address: (4) ___ London Road. Near: (5) ___.
3. V. You will hear a tour guide talking about a town in Scotland. Listen and complete questions. (1.0 point) Notes Guide’s name: Jim Banks open from: (1) ___. + to: (2) ___. + closed on: (3) ___. Bus to city center + number: (4) ___. + cost: (5) ___. PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (3.0 points) I. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each sentence. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (2.0 points) 1. When my friend misses the lessons, I always ___ him my notes. A. take B. send C. borrow D. lend 2. It is necessary for students to listen to their teacher ___. A. attentive B. attentively C. attention D. attending 3. I’m always nervous when I’m ___ an exam. A. taking B. making C. working D. writing 4. Trung: “Why do you think most people learn English?” - Phong: “___” A. All of them are. B. I hear it is very good. C. Because it’s useful to them. D. Because I like it. 5. Duong: “I’m hungry now, Mum!” - Mother: “___” A. Would you like to go out? B. Let’s cook dinner now. C. Why are you so hungry? D. Here is some bread and butter for you. 6. “There is ___ sugar in the jar. Go and buy a kilo, Nguyet.” A. some B. much C. little D. few 7. The first exercise is easy but the second one is ___. A. easy too B. less difficult C. difficult too D. more difficult 8. Karate is a form of martial ___. A. fighting B. skill C. sports D. arts 9. All of us ___ at home yesterday evening. A. were B. was C. did D. are
4. 10. We ___ go when the traffic lights are red. A. can’t B. needn’t C. shouldn’t D. wouldn’t Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10 II. Read the passage and use the correct forms of the words given. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 point) The (1. excite) ___game between the Lions and the Tigers is over. The Tigers’ (2. fail) ___ to win of course means that they won’t play in the finals. The Lions played a (3. wonder) ___ game and gained everyone’s (4. admire) ___. Their combination of skills and (5. strong) ___ certainly helped them to win. Due to the continuous (6. develop) ___ of new strategies by their coach, this will be the (7. five) ___ year in a row, that the Lions will play in the final. Their (8. popular) ___ has increased over the years and there is no doubt that Midina Stadium will be (9. crowd) ___ with excited fans on the day of the final If they play like today they are sure to be (10. success) ___. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. PART C. READING (5.0 points) I.Read and choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (2.0 points) In the United States of America, the national language is (1) ___ English. Four hundred years ago, some English people came to North America to live and they brought (2) ___ language to this country. Now in the USA, people speak (3) ___ English. Most of the words are the (4) ___ in American and British English, but the American say some English words not as people (5) ___ in England. Canada is (6) ___ to the North of the United States of America. It is the larger (7) ___ the United States. In Canada, many people (8) ___ English because they also came from England many years (9) ___. But in some parts of Canada, people speak (10) ___ because they came from France. 1. A. also B. like C. as D. not 2. A. French B. English C. Chinese D. Canadian 3. A. British B. American C. Russian D. Chinese 4. A. various B. similar C. same D. like 5. A. do B. say C. talk D. speak 6. A. lies B. situated C. at D. in 7. A. than B. as C. more D. less 8. A. say B. tell C. talk D speak 9. A. ago B. later C. there D. here 10. A. France B. French C. Russian D. Italian Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10
5. II. Read the following passage and choose the best option to answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 point) School of the Air Many of us may be surprised to hear the name “School of the air”, but there are over ten of them in Australia. Alice Springs School of the Air is one of these in the Northern Territory. The school provides an educational service for about 120 children living in Central Australia. Students of this school live far from each other, so they don’t have normal lessons in classrooms, but they study at their homes. They get lessons from their teachers through post or e-mail. They have to work five or six hours a day, five days a week. They send their work to the teachers and discuss it over the Internet. They can borrow books from the school library, and the books arrive by post. They also take part in outside classroom activities such as sports and games. 1. Alice Springs School of the Air teaches children in ___. A. Central Australia B. Northern Australia C. all Australia 2. Students get their lessons from their teachers ___. A. through post or e-mail B. through TV network C. in classrooms 3. Which of the following is NOT true? A. Students don’t have lessons at weekends. B. Students can read books in the library. C. Students can play sports and games. 4. The word “them” in the first paragraph refers to ___. A. many of us B. schools in general C. schools of the air 5. What is the passage mainly about? A. Schools in Australia B. A special kind of school C. A good way of learning Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. III. Fill each blank with a word to finish the passage.(1.0 point) Living in the country is something that people from the city often dream about. However, in reality, it has (1) ___ its advantages and disadvantages.
6. There are certain (2) ___ advantages to living in the country. First of all, you can enjoy peace and quiet. Moreover, people tend to be friendlier and (3) ___ open. A further advantage is that there is less traffic, so it is safer (4) ___ young children. On the other hand, there are certain drawbacks to life (5) ___ the city. Firstly, because there are fewer people, you are likely to (6) ___ fewer friends. In addition, entertainment is (7) ___ to find, particularly in the evening. Furthermore, the fact (8) ___ there are fewer shops and services means that it is harder to (9) ___ work. As a result, you may have to travel a long way to (10) ___, which can be extremely expensive. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. IV. Read the following passageand do the tasks that follow. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. A. There are now over 700 million motor vehicles in the world - and the number is rising by more than 40 millioneach year. The average distance driven by car users is growing too - from 8km a day per person in western European 1965 to 25 km a day in 1995. This dependence on motorvehicles has given rise to major problems, including environmental pollution, depletion of oil resources,traffic congestion and safety. B. While emissions from new cars are far less harmful than they used to be, city streets and motorways are becoming more crowded than ever, often with older trucks, buses and taxis which emit excessive levels of smoke and fumes.This concentration of vehicles makes air quality in urban areas unpleasant and sometimes dangerous to breathe. Even Moscow has joined the list of capitals afflicted by congestion and traffic fumes. In Mexico City, vehicle pollution is a major health hazard. C. Until a hundred years ago, most journeys were in the 20km range, the distance conveniently accessible by horse. Heavy freight could only be carried by water or rail. Invention of the motor vehicle brought personal mobility to the masses and made rapid freight delivery possible over a much wider area. In the United Kingdom, about 90 per cent of inland freight is carried by road. The world cannot revert to the horse-drawn wagon. Can it avoid being locked into congested and polluting ways of transporting people and goods? D. In Europe most cities are still designed for the oldmodes of transport. Adaptation to the motor car has involved adding ring roads, one-way systems and parking lots. In the United States, more land is assigned to car use than to housing. Urban sprawl means that life without a car is next to impossible. Mass use of motorvehicles has also killed or injured millions of people. Other social effects have been blamed on the car such as alienation and aggressive human behavior. E. A 1993 study by the European Federation for Transport and Environment found that car transport is seven times as costly as rail travel in terms of the external social costs it entails - congestion, accidents, pollution, lossof cropland and natural habitats, depletion of oilresources, and so on. Yet cars easily surpass trains or buses as a flexible and convenient mode of personal transport. It is unrealistic to expect people to give up private cars in favor of mass transit. F.Technical solutions can reduce the pollution problem and increase the fueled efficiency of engines. But fuel consumption and exhaust emissions depend on which cars are preferred by customers and how they are driven. Many people buy larger cars than they need for daily
7. purposesor waste fuel by driving aggressively. Besides, globalcar use is increasing at a faster rate than the improvement in emissions and fuel efficiency which technology is now making possible. * Match the information to the paragraph: Which paragraphs contains the following information? 1. a comparison of past and present transportation methods 1. Paragraph A 2. how driving habits contribute to road problems 2. Paragraph B 3. the relative merits of cars and public transport 3. Paragraph C 4. the increasing use of motor vehicles 4. Paragraph D 5. the impact of the car on city development 5. Paragraph E Paragraph F Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. PART D. WRITING (5.0 points) I. Rewrite the sentences, so that their meaning stays the same using the beginning given for each. (1,5points) 1. Could you tell me how to get to the City’s Exhibition, please? Could you show ? 2. My room is smaller than your room. Your room 3. Hang is the tallest girl in my class. No girl 4. Do you find it easy to make friends? Are you good ? 5. I think you should prepare carefully for your journey. I advise you to 6. My mother is always busy from morning till night. My mother is never II. Rewrite each of the following sentence, using the word given, keeping its meaning unchanged. (1,5 points) 1. Charles lives quite near his aunt’s house. (DOESN’T) 2. The doctor says that if my father continues to smoke, he’ll be ill. (UNLESS) 3. Does astronomy interest you? (TAKE) 4. Popular newspapers are cheaper than serious ones. (EXPENSIVE) 5. It is not necessary for you to finish your assignment this evening. (NEED)
8. 6. The dog is to the left of the sofa and to the right of the wardrobe. (BETWEEN) II. Paragraph writing. (2.0 points) You are the president of your school’s 3Rs club. You have a plan for the club to go green in the new school year. Write from 60-80 words about what your club will do. You should use the cues given: - Name of the plan. - Things you will do according to the plan. ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___THE END___ PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM HUYỆN GIA VIỄN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6 NĂM HỌC 202 -2023 Môn: TIẾNG ANH Ngày thi: 30/3/2023 PART A. LISTENING (5.0 points) Mỗi ý đúng cho: 0,2 điểm. I. You will file short conversations. Put a tick (√) under the right answer. (1.0 point) 1. C 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. A II. Listen to Liz and Micheal talking about rooms in a hotel. They are going to paint the rooms. What color are they going to pain each room? Write a letter A-H to each room. (1.0 point)
9. 1. H 2. D 3. B 4. E 5. F III. Listen to Sarah talking to her friend, Jane, about a new job. Tick (√) A, B or C. (1.0 point) 1. C 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. B IV. You will hear a student telephoning a school. Listen and complete question. (1.0 point) 1. Monday 2. January 3. 9.15/quarter 4. 57 5. (the) station past nine/nine fifteen V. You will hear a tour guide talking about a town in Scotland. Listen and complete question. (1.0 point) 1. 9.30/half 2. 4.00/ four 3. Sunday(s) 4. 21/twenty- 5. 60p/60 pence past nine/nine o’clock/ 16.00 one thirty PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (3.0 points) I. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each sentence. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (2.0 points) Mỗi ý đúng cho: 0,2 điểm. 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. A II. Read the passage and use the correct forms of the words given. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 point) Mỗi ý đúng cho: 0,1 điểm. 1. exciting 2. failure 3. wonderful 4. admiration 5. strength 6. development 7. fifth 8. popularity 9. crowded 10. successful PART C. READING (5.0 points) I.Read and choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (2.0 points) Mỗi ý đúng cho: 0,2 điểm. 1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. B
10. II. Read the following passage and choose the best option to answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 point) Mỗi ý đúng cho: 0,2 điểm. 1. A 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. B III. Fill each blank with a word to finish the passage.(1.0 point) Mỗi ý đúng cho: 0,1 điểm. 1. both 2. many/ some 3. more 4. for 5. outside 6. have 7. difficult/ 8. that 9. find 10. work hard IV. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 point) Mỗi ý đúng cho: 0,2 điểm. 1. C 2. F 3. E 4. A 5. D PART D. WRITING (5.0 points) I. Rewrite the sentences, so that their meaning stays the same using the beginning given for each. (1,5 points) - Mỗi ý đúng cho: 0,25 điểm. 1. Could you show me the way to the City’s Exhibition, please? 2. Your room is bigger/ larger than mine/ my room. 3. No girl in my class is taller than Hang. 4. Are you good at making friends? 5. I advise you to prepare carefully for your journey. 6. My mother is never free from morning till night. II. Rewrite each of the following sentence, using the word given, keeping its meaning unchanged. (1,5 points) - Mỗi ý đúng cho: 0,25 điểm. 1. Charles doesn’t live far from his aunt’s house. 2. The doctor says that unless my father stops smoking. he’ll be ill, 3. Do you take an interest in astronomy? 4. Serious newspapers are more expensive than popular ones. 5. You don’t need to finish your assignment this evening. 6. The dog is between the sofa and the wardrobe. II. Paragraph writing. (2.0 points) You are the president of your school’s 3Rs club. You have a plan for the club to go green in the new school year. Write from 60-80 words about what your club will do. You should use the cues given: - Name of the plan.
11. - Things you will do according to the plan. * Sample writing: I am the president of the school’s 3Rs club. I have a plan for our club in this school year. The plan is called “Green School Year”. In this plan, each group will plant at least five trees. We have trees for them and groups will have to water them regularly after they plant the trees. By the end of the semester, we will have a Recycling Competition. Students can recycle cans, bottles, carton boxes or anything they want to make useful things.